EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

---

Question1: On the NMS system, the network element performance monitoring time is set to () minutes and () hours.

Question2: output networks require higher costs than belt networks, but provide a more reliable management channel.

Question3: Manual configuration will clear the data on the NE side

Question4: In the Windows operating system, the log files of the U2000 program are stored in the () directory of the U2000 installation disk.

Question5: For alignment; Indicates the starting position of VC-n in the corresponding AU or TU frame. * This way: The receiver can correctly remove the corresponding VC from STM-N, and then The VC and C packages are separated into separate low-rate signals, such as PDH, which means that the low-rate path signal can be dropped directly from the STM-N signal.

Question6: Some SNCP protection inversion conditions are default, such as AU-AIS and TU-AIS. Other conditions are optional, such as HP-TIM and HP-SLM. Optional conditions can be flexibly set according to the level of the costume.

Question7: Optical monitoring channel is used for monitoring of WDM optical transmission systems. In the UU-T recommendation, it is preferable to use a 1510 nm wavelength of the a ") rate.

Question8: When the SNCP ring consisting of four Optis OSN 2500 devices has a rate of 25 Gbt/s, the network's service answer stars can carry up to ()2Mt/s Signal.

Question9: Which of the following bytes can be used for ordenwire calls between two REG devices?

Question10: In Recommendation ITU-T G.692, the allowable channel frequencies are based on the reference frequency (), and the channel spacing can be 100 GHz, 50 GHz or 25 GHz.

Question11: The scope of management of OMSn is the path from the input optical port on the multiplexer unit of the sending site to the output optical port on the multiplexer unit of the receiving site, called the optical multiplexing segment (OMS) path.

Question12: The AAC address consists of 46 bits and is globally unique
Which of the following - is the meaning of the eighth-digit MAC address with 1?

Question13: Forced switching, fiber switching, manual switching and motion switching are decreased in order of priority.

Question14: Which of the following statements about signal label byte C2 are incorrect?

Question15: The segment overhead of STM-4 is () bytes/frame.

Question16: Which of the following statements regarding multiplexing partial remote error indication (MS-REI) is correct?
(1) B2 bytes indicate the transmission channel.
(2) The M1 byte represents the transmission channel
(3) THE MS-REl is sent from the receiver to the source.
(4) MS-REI is transmitted from the source to the receiver.
(5) Indicates the number of bit errors detected by the receiver after receiving the MS signal.

Question17: Which of the following statements about the MSP ring is correct? (Multiple choice).

Question18: In the system control unit, which of the following databases does not lose data after a power failure? (Multiple choice).

Question19: Which of the following light sources has the best dispersion tolerance and stability?

Question20: Which of the following statements about the OTM-n .m and OTMnr .m for OTN are incorrect?

Question21: The refractive index n1 of the fiber core must be the Q of the cladding refractive Mo n2, which is a necessary condition for transmitting the optical signal in the optical fiber.

Question22: After configuring PDH on a per-net element basis, the full trace cannot be searched. Which of the following is a possible cause? (Multiple choice)

Question23: EPL services use bandwidth exclusively on the line, which is very safe. Dedicated line applications for VIP customers

Question24: Which of the following statements about ODUk_PM_BDI is correct?

Question25: According to the formula "ODUk rate = 239/(239k) x STM-N frame rate", ODU4 The rate is equal to the 239/235xSTM-N Pa rate.

Question26: PDM uses a polarization beam splitter to divide the laser into two vertical directions: x and y.

Question27: PRBS can be used to test that the SDH service is healthy and that the protection reversal function is working.

Question28: Which of the following can be configured as the monitoring time for network element performance events?

Question29: Which of the following is not the advantage of WDM?

Question30: When the ACT indicator of the SDH board is off, it means that the board has a hardware failure and cannot be used.

Question31: Which of the following are the service board types for MSTP devices? (Multiple choice).

Question32: OSN1500/2500/3500/7500 supports DC and AC power inputs.

Question33: In the case of a 1+1 linear MSP, which of the following switching modes does not require the APS protection protocol full (multiple choice) to be enabled

Question34: QinQ technology can be used when multiple users need to share the same VCTRUNK and use the same VLAN ID.

Question35: Which of the following local maintenance endpoints can be used to manage MSTP devices?

Question36: QinQ technology can be used when multiple users need to share the same VCTRUK and use the same VLAN ID.

Question37: Which of the following is the main advantage of SDH? (Multiple choice).

Question38: In the frame structure of the SDH signal, there are large overhead bytes for operation, management, and maintenance (OAM). Overhead bytes account for all bits () of the entire frame and greatly enhance the monitoring capabilities of the network.

Question39: Compared with dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) systems, crude glass division multiplexing (CWDM) systems provide a certain amount of glass length and transmission distance within (kmkm), which greatly reduces system cost and has strong flexibility

Question40: Establish Ethernet leased line service between HI (HQ) and H2 (branch) of enterprise H, and bind 5 in the corresponding VCTRUNK VC-12. When a VC-12 fails, the Ethernet dedicated line between H1 and H2 is interrupted. So, which of the following statements is true?

Question41: For OSN3500, there is a slot mapping relationship between the processing board and the interface pre-processor. The processing board in slot 1 maps to the interface board in slots 19-20.

Question42: When using a script to back up U2000 data, the backup speed is fast because the backup file is small.

Question43: Coherent receiver technology uses a local oscillator laser with the same frequency as the received signal to perform coherent processing and recover () information from the received signal. (Multi-quality selection.)

Question44: SDH signals must be scrambled before they can be transmitted over optical fibers. Which of the following bytes is not scrambled? (Multiple choice).

Question45: Which of the following is the difference between an AU pointer and a TU pointer? (Multiple choice).

Question46: The clock unit can only access the external clock source as the timing signal source of the system through the external clock interface. In addition; It can also output a processed clock and provide a clock source for other devices that need timing.

Question47: Which of the following are the components of the WDM system summer with N glass lengths? (Multiple choice).

Question48: When there is a Critical Error In Seconds (SES) in the PM portion of the ODUk layer, which of the following alarms is reported by NMS?

Question49: Which of the following statements about the MST functional module is correct? (Multiple choice).

Question50: The last 256 columns in the OTN frame structure are the FEC regions for forward error correction.

Question51: The STAT indicator of the SDH board flashes red, lights up for 100ms, and turns off for 100ms. Which of the following means the state of the metric?

Question52: Which of the following ITLI-T recommendations define the OTN frame structure?

Question53: Which of the following statements about basic LCAS functionality are correct? (Multiple choice).

Question54: U2000 can flexibly interconnect with different third-party network administrators through the Northbound Interface (NBI) and provide physical inventory and alarm information for the upper-layer network management.

Question55: EPL services use ports and bandwidth exclusively, and different users may need to share resources. Which of the following methods can be used to isolate user data?

Question56: In the OSN550, the CXL slot contains a function board that integrates a system control and communication (SCC) unit, a cross-connecting unit, and a clock unit Depending on the functionality and access features provided by the OSN550, there are several types of dashboards

Question57: When the J1 byte does not match, an alarm () is reported and the service may be interrupted.

Question58: The1310nm and 1550nm transmission windows are low loss windows. In DWDM systems, only the 1560m transfer window is used. Which of the following is the main cause?

Question59: Fiber loss includes bending loss, absorption loss and scattering loss.

Question60: In WDM systems, it is ideal to use a dielectric thin problem filter (TFF) when using less than () wavelengths.

Question61: What are the basic features of the U2000? Multiple Choices

Question62: The rate of SF64 and SL64 boards is STM54. Therefore, the two plates can be interconnected.

Question63: Which of the following bytes in the regenerator part overhead are associated with R-OOF and R-LOF? (Multiple Choices)

Question64: Which of the following is the default WTR time for MSP switching?

Question65: The number of ODU2e signals multiplexed into the ODU3 signal is the same as the number of ODU2 signals multiplexed into the ODU3 signal

Question66: Which of the following logical function modules is used to generate exhaust R-LOS alerts?

Question67: The MAC loopback and PHY loopback are used for fault location. When the MAC loopback is set to in loop, the PHY loopback can be set according to the actual situation.

Question68: For osn3500, which of the following boards provides centralized backup capability for the +3.3V power supply of each board in the sub-shelf?

Question69: Which overhead below 112 is not ODUk overhead?

Question70: OTM nr.m consists of up to n " multiplexed channels and does not support non-channel-related overhead. The letter "r" indicates a decrease in functionality.

Question71: Both PDH and SDH have globally harmonized standards.

Question72: The TAG attribute cannot be set for the internal port VCTRUNK of the single board on the NMS.

Question73: TU-AIS is often encountered during network maintenance. Which of the following alerts can trigger a TU-AIS alert? (Multiple choice).

Question74: When a bit error is detected in B2 bytes, which of the following alarms is reported by the peer?

Question75: For 100G (112Gbit/s) signals, the actual data baud rate is only 28G amplitude.

Question76: For alignment; Indicates the starting position of VC-n in the corresponding AU or TU frame. * This way: The receiver can correctly remove the corresponding VC from STM-N, and then The VC and C packages are separated into separate low-rate signals, such as PDH, which means that the low-rate path signal can be dropped directly from the STM-N signal.

Question77: Which of the following is the multiplexing method of SDH?